College of Eastern Utah Pulseless Electrical Activity and ACLS Algorithm Questions there are 50 question all are (multiple choice) answer each one separate

College of Eastern Utah Pulseless Electrical Activity and ACLS Algorithm Questions there are 50 question all are (multiple choice) answer each one separately please highlight the right answer. 1. True or False: Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as
pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
o
True
o
False
2. True or False: The right side of the heart is responsible for pulmonary
circulation.
o
True
o
False
3. True or False: The aorta is the wall that separates the ventricles of the
heart.
o
True
o
False
4. True or False: Any bradycardia less than 60 beats per minute is a
pathologic event.
o
True
o
False
5. True or False: Therapeutic hypothermia should be considered in the
comatose adult after cardiac arrest.
o
True
o
False
6. Ventricular fibrillation can be a life-threatening complication of ACS.
o
True
o
False
7. True or False: PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable rhythms
and follow the same ACLS algorithm.
o
True
o
False
8. True or False: It is recommended to interrupt CPR when obtaining IV
access for an individual in asystole.
o
True
o
False
9. True or False: Shortness of breath in conjunction with chest pain may be
indicative of cardiac ischemia.
o
True
o
False
10.
True or False: Symptomatic bradycardia and poor perfusion may
degrade into cardiac arrest.
o
True
o
False
11.
True or False: The definition of stable tachycardia is a fast but
constant heart rate between 80 and 120 beats per minute.
o
True
o
False
12.
True or False: The time of first response to treatment of an acute
stroke may determine the outcome and survival of the individual.
o
True
o
False
13.
True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the
management of acute strokes.
o
True
o
False
14.
True or False: Fibrinolytic therapy within three hours (in some cases
4.5 hours) of first onset of symptoms is the standard when treating
ischemic stroke.
o
True
o
False
15.
True or False: If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other
options to consider.
o
True
o
False
16.
What does the BLS Survey want you to assess which of the
following?
o
Responsiveness, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs
o
Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get an AED, Circulation, Defibrillation
o
Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
o
Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
17.
What amount of time should ACLS providers spend on chest
compressions to minimize interruptions?
o
2 seconds
o
5 seconds
o
10 seconds
o
30 seconds
18.
Which of the following is NOT an element of effective resuscitation
team dynamics?
o
Knowing one’s limitations
o
Clear roles and responsibilities
o
Closed-loop communication
o
Shouting or yelling at team members
19.
For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should
they be ventilated?
o
Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
o
Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per minute.
o
Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute.
o
Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per minute.
20.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement
of an advanced airway is:
o
20:01
o
15:02
o
30:01:00
o
30:02:00
21.
What is the purpose of defibrillation?
o
To stun the heart and allow its normal pacemaker to resume electrical activity.
o
To restart the heart.
o
To treat symptomatic bradycardia.
o
To provide electrically stimulated contraction of the heart.
22.
Which of the following is an essential component of high-quality
CPR?
o
Push hard and fast.
o
Minimize interruptions.
o
Switch rescuers every two minutes.
o
All of the above
23.
When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be
delivered per shock?
o
200 J
o
300 J
o
360 J
o
150 J
24.
Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how
many minutes?
o
Two minutes
o
10 minutes
o
One minute
o
Five minutes
25.
The order of priority for routes of access for drugs is:
o
ET route, IV route, IO route
o
IO route, ET route, IV route
o
IV route, IO route, ET route
o
IO route, IV route, ET route
26.
The IV route is preferred for drug administration. If IV access is not
available, the next preferred route is:
o
Endotracheal
o
Transdermal
o
None of the above
o
Intraosseous
27.
Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
o
Hyperventilation
o
Hypothermia
o
Hypoxia
o
Hyperkalemia
28.
The two most common and easily reversible causes of PEA are:
o
Hypovolemia and hypoxia
o
Toxins and trauma
o
Hypoglycemia and cardiac tamponade
o
Acidosis and hypokalemia
29.
The best treatment for ST-elevation MI (STEMI) is:
o
Lidocaine and magnesium
o
Early reperfusion therapy
o
Epinephrine and vasopressin
o
Rapid transfusion
30.
In the absence of immediately reversible causes, what is the first-line
drug given for symptomatic bradycardia?
o
Atropine
o
Metoprolol
o
Albuterol
o
Nitroglycerine
31.
Signs of unstable tachycardia may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
o
Hypotension
o
Abdominal tenderness
o
Acute heart failure
o
Ischemic chest discomfort
32.
What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia (heart
rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of
shock?
o
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
o
Synchronized cardioversion
o
Defibrillation
o
Administer a calcium channel blocker
33.
Critical in-hospital goals of stroke care include a neurological
assessment by the stroke team and a CT scan performed within ________
of hospital arrival.
o
60 minutes
o
45 minutes
o
10 minutes
o
25 minutes
34.
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) identifies stroke on
the basis of the following physical findings EXCEPT:
o
Arm drift
o
Abnormal gait
o
Abnormal speech
o
Facial droop
35.
The normal sinus rhythm of the heart starts in the:
o
Sinoatrial node
o
Purkinje system
o
Right ventricle
o
Atrioventricular node
36.
Under normal circumstances, what is the largest chamber of the
heart?
o
Left atrium
o
Right atrium
o
Left ventricle
o
Right ventricle
37.
What does the QRS represent?
o
Depolarization of the ventricular
o
SA node
o
Conduction through the AV node
o
Repolarization of the ventricular
38.
o
Which wave represents repolarization of the ventricles?
P wave
o
T wave
o
QRS complex
o
PR interval
39.
According to the 2015 AHA update, high-quality CPR is defined as:
o
100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
o
80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches
o
80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
o
100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than
2.4 inches
40.
This is an example of which type of heart rhythm?
sal-42-acls
o
Pulseless electrical activity
o
Atrial fibrillation
o
Atrial flutter
o
Ventricular fibrillation
41.
During the post-cardiac arrest phase, which of the following
medications can be used to treat hypotension?
o
Dopamine
o
Epinephrine
o
Norepinephrine
o
All of the above
42.
This is an example of what type of heart rhythm?
sal-ns-acls
o
Atrial fibrillation
o
Ventricular fibrillation
o
Normal sinus rhythm
o
Asystole
43.
According to the 2015 AHA Guidelines, stopping chest compressions
for any reason, such as pulse checks, should be limited to less than:
o
3 seconds
o
60 seconds
o
30 seconds
o
10 seconds
44.
Which of the following can be a result of prolonged asystole?
o
Severe brain damage
o
Lack of oxygen to vital organs
o
Severe myocardial ischemia
o
All of the above
45.
Individuals experiencing a suspected ACS should be transported to:
o
An appropriate center for triage
o
A facility with trauma care
o
A facility that performs PCI
o
A center that has a dedicated stroke team
46.
If an individual suffering from tachycardia loses their pulse, the
following should be done:
o
CPR until pulse is detectable
o
Immediately resume CPR and switch to ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm
o
Administer atropine
o
Immediate defibrillation
47.
A _____________ is required to assess for STEMI.
o
Defibrillator
o
12-lead ECG
o
Vagal maneuvers
o
Transcutaneous pacing
48.
Acute strokes are a result of:
o
A. Blockage of an artery in the heart
o
B. Blockage of an artery in the brain
o
C. Rupture of an artery in the brain
o
D. Either B or C
49.
All of the following are considered classic symptoms of an acute
stroke EXCEPT:
o
A. Jaw pain
o
B. Headache
o
C. Numbness
o
D. All of the above are symptoms
50.
Within what time period of arrival to the ED is percutaneous coronary
intervention (PCI) recommended for STEMI individuals?
o
20 minutes
o
10 minutes
o
150 minutes
o
90 minutes

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